I think we fundamentally don’t agree on what “tangent” means. You can use
x=f(θ)cosθ, y=f(θ)sinθ to compute dydx
as taken from the textbook, giving you a tangent line in the terms used in polar coordinates. I think your line of reasoning would lead to r=1 in polar coordinates being a line, even though it’s a circle with radius 1.
Given r=f(θ), we are generally not concerned with r′=f′(θ); that describes how fast r changes with respect to θ
I think this part from the textbook describes what you’re talking about
Instead, we will use x=f(θ)cosθ, y=f(θ)sinθ to compute dydx.
And this would give you the actual tangent line, or at least the slope of that line.
Polar Functions and dydx
We are interested in the lines tangent a given graph, regardless of whether that graph is produced by rectangular, parametric, or polar equations. In each of these contexts, the slope of the tangent line is dydx. Given r=f(θ), we are generally not concerned with r′=f′(θ); that describes how fast r changes with respect to θ. Instead, we will use x=f(θ)cosθ, y=f(θ)sinθ to compute dydx.
From the link above. I really don’t understand why you seem to think a tangent line in polar coordinates would be a circle.
A straight line in polar coordinates with the same tangent would be a circle.
I’m not sure that’s true. In non-euclidean geometry it might be, but aren’t polar coordinates just an alternative way of expressing cartesian?
Looking at a libre textbook, it seems to be showing that a tangent line in polar coordinates is still a straight line, not a circle.
The tangent of all points along the line equal that line
You’re using the derivative of a polar equation as the basis for what a tangent line is. But as the textbook explains, that doesn’t give you a tangent line or describe the slope at that point. I never bothered defining what “tangent” means, but since this seems so important to you why don’t you try coming up with a reasonable definition?